Login

Join for Free!
114074 members


dominat genetic disease

Genetics as it applies to evolution, molecular biology, and medical aspects.

Moderator: BioTeam

dominat genetic disease

Postby kandarp shah » Sat Dec 03, 2005 7:05 pm

1)How is possible for a person to have a dominant genetic disorder and not know it?
MY GUESS- it is possible for a person to have a dominant genetic disorder and not know it because person will develop the dominant alleles disease but shows no symptoms of particular diseases until the age of 30.

Thanks in advance......please relpy ASAP.
User avatar
kandarp shah
Coral
Coral
 
Posts: 108
Joined: Sat Jun 04, 2005 2:28 pm
Location: USA

Postby MrMistery » Sat Dec 03, 2005 7:24 pm

It seems like the only rational explanation...
"As a biologist, I firmly believe that when you're dead, you're dead. Except for what you live behind in history. That's the only afterlife" - J. Craig Venter
User avatar
MrMistery
Inland Taipan
Inland Taipan
 
Posts: 6832
Joined: Thu Mar 03, 2005 10:18 pm
Location: Romania(small and unimportant country)

Postby kandarp shah » Sat Dec 03, 2005 7:41 pm

so what can add to complete the answer??????
thanks a lot
User avatar
kandarp shah
Coral
Coral
 
Posts: 108
Joined: Sat Jun 04, 2005 2:28 pm
Location: USA


Postby MrMistery » Sun Dec 04, 2005 11:00 am

Well you can explain that if the relation between the present alleles is simple mendelian dominance and the gene for the desease is dominant then the "bad" gene will express. So the only possibility is that the symptoms aren't noticed or that the man ignores them or thinks he has some other desease...


But what about codominance? In genes for blood types the genes for A and B are dominant and when they are together they create a new phenotype. Maybe this is the case, the gene is present alongside another dominant gene and they are codominant, so the symptoms are not as obvious as they would be in a simple mendelian relation. This is just a guess, i have no examples, i don't even know if it is possible...
"As a biologist, I firmly believe that when you're dead, you're dead. Except for what you live behind in history. That's the only afterlife" - J. Craig Venter
User avatar
MrMistery
Inland Taipan
Inland Taipan
 
Posts: 6832
Joined: Thu Mar 03, 2005 10:18 pm
Location: Romania(small and unimportant country)

Postby Ilyaas » Sun Dec 04, 2005 11:19 am

Hey just a question, what is it that makes one allele dominant over the other? I mean I understand one is dominant but what is the cause for one being expressed and not the other? what determines this?
Ilyaas
Garter
Garter
 
Posts: 20
Joined: Sat Dec 03, 2005 8:43 pm

Postby jesstickle » Sun Dec 04, 2005 10:40 pm

The way I understand it is this. You get dominance both normal alleles are needed to make sufficient protein ( so mutating one means insufficent protein is made to do what ever it is meant to do) or if the mutated protein created is significantly 'bad' that you only need one copy of it to screw up what ever it is acting upon. I think that's right anyway.
jesstickle
Garter
Garter
 
Posts: 5
Joined: Sun Dec 04, 2005 10:37 pm


Return to Genetics

Who is online

Users browsing this forum: No registered users and 2 guests

cron