1 gene = 1 polypeptide

[student12]

Correct me if I am wrong, but doesn't one gene code for one polypeptide?

Why I ask this question some may wonder...it's b/c one question i run acrossed asked:
Describe 2 reasons why geneticist have reevaluated their traditional view that one gene codes for one polypeptide.

[weesper]

because through the process of splicing one parent transcript may be spliced into various alternative forms which can be all be translated into different types of peptide chains for example in different tissues or different stages of development.

[MrMistery]

That is the reason why the cistron notion has been introduced.
Another reason for reevaluating this theorem is the fact that a gene can code for a RNA that is not translated(e.g. rRNA, tRNA, snRNA, snoRNA etc)

[student12]

because through the process of splicing one parent transcript may be spliced into various alternative forms which can be all be translated into different types of peptide chains for example in different tissues or different stages of development.

Doesn't 1 gene code for a polypeptide which can then be further modified, either by the addition of various molecules or by splicing out certain regions?