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Why is the allele for polydactyly considered dominant...?

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Why is the allele for polydactyly considered dominant...?

Postby WiseIdiot » Fri Oct 24, 2008 5:32 pm

...while alleles associated with the formation of five digits is considered recessive?

If this is the case, why are there far more individuals with five fingers than more?
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Re: Why is the allele for polydactyly considered dominant...?

Postby MichaelXY » Fri Oct 24, 2008 5:58 pm

It has to do with the frequency of the allele for 6 digits. Although this is dominant, its occurance is much lower than the ressesive 5 fingers.

I think Natural selection plays a part in this phalangeal paradox.

Maybe the ones with 6 fingers could not buy gloves in the winter so they froze to death, thus reducing the 6 finger gene pool. :)
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Postby alextemplet » Fri Oct 24, 2008 6:01 pm

Not to mention that those two extra digits prevented their total fingers from syncing nicely with the base-10 number system, causing them to commit suicide when they were subjected to the rigors of calculus.
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Postby MichaelXY » Sat Oct 25, 2008 5:03 am

Perhaps if they knew of the duodecimal system they could have adapted. :)
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