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help needed please!Moderator: BioTeam
8 posts • Page 1 of 1
help needed please!hi I have been wondering about this question for some time, if a disease (such as sickle cell) is inherited as an X-linked recessive gene in humans and an unaffected woman with no history of the disease marries a man who has the disease, what propotion of their sons and their daughters are expected to be affected?..
Is it still a simplictic 3:1 ratio?
Re: help needed please!
Firstly sickel cell disease is not an X-linked recessive condition - it is an autosomal recessive condition... In the offspring there is a 25% chance of having disease, 50% of carrier, and 25% of not having disease... i think this is what you are referring to as 'the 3:1 ratio'... An X-linked recessive condition would be something like Haemophilia... Here is an example... The effected allele I've put in red Male with haemophilia XY vs. Normal female XX Offspring 50% chance of female carrier XX 50% chance of normal male XY And so, none of the offspring would suffer from the condition in this case... Hope that helps...
Re: help needed please!
The example I gave you in your takehome quiz used G6PD deficiency, which is X-linked. Sickle cell anaemia isn't.
hi dude see your question is pretty valid and a good one that mite confuse many but it has a simple approach see what happens is that a male contributes only X chromosome to daughter and a Y chromosome to the son. so it means that the other half is the contribution of the mother. and if the male is suffering frm the disease so what will happen,he would have a progeny that has following sons:- they will not carry the disease as its an X-linked disease and the father or the male doesnt contribute X chrmosome to his sons. daughters:- in this case the daughters will be the carriers of the disease as they get an x- chromosome from the father amd the other half from their mother. so thats what u get
I ask essentially this question for one of my laboratory exercises, and the wrong answer of Revenged is often given - it's an easy mistake to make.
sportysunnyfunny has it right, but somehow the answer - no offspring affected, but all females carriers - doesn't seem right. I've seen many students cross out the right answer and substitute a wrong one.
My answer wasn't wrong... It was EXACTLY the same as what sportysunnyfunny said... "sons:- they will not carry the disease as its an X-linked disease and the father or the male doesnt contribute X chrmosome to his sons. daughters:- in this case the daughters will be the carriers of the disease as they get an x- chromosome from the father amd the other half from their mother." is exactly the same as my answer of... "Offspring 50% chance of female carrier XX 50% chance of normal male XY And so, none of the offspring would suffer from the condition in this case..."
ok, i see... i did wonder why people were getting confused... and yes, i was assuming that both the parents were carriers in my autosomal recessive ('3:1') example... i just didn't say it so, which is why i confused people!...
8 posts • Page 1 of 1
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